Continuing Professional Education in Nursing

Continuing Professional Education in Nursing Chapter 2 Review of Related Literature This section shows the significant studies about the literatures on factors influencing continuing participation education among nurses in selected tertiary hospitals. This section talks about the discussions of the research. It is made up of the following; what is continuing professional education, Motivations to CPE, Barriers to CPE and the Requirements for CPE. What is Continuing Professional Education or CPE? Continuing Professional Education is a type of education that is conducted for participants in different professional fields that will help them keep their knowledge and skills updated and other relatable information that will aid them to achieve wider understanding of their selected profession. The CPE consist of programs that are properly arranged and planned set of activities, the implementation of the program requires the participation of well determined group of professionals that are seeking improvements with their knowledge and skill to maintain their capacity to work for their profession. The American Nursing Association defines continuing nursing education as education activities planned to construct the educational and experience base for professional nurses and to strengthen practice, education, administration, research or theoretical development, with a view to improving users’ health (Peà ±a, Castillo, 2006). It is the responsibility and accountability of a professional to continue his/her professional development and is vital to organizational and professional success (O’Sullivan 2004). Continuing Professional Education is considered as the systematic maintenance, improvement and broadening of knowledge and skills, and the development of personal qualities necessary for execution of professional, technical duties throughout the individual’s working life (A.Yfantis et al., 2010). The primary objective of continuing professional education is to facilitate continuous career growth, professional development and to improve nursing practices (National League for Nursing, 2001). Motivation to Continue Professional Education Motivation is what drives a professional to participate in an activity like continuing professional education that will help them improve their skills and knowledge regarding their profession to make them more competent and more reliable to execute things that should be done in their work area. In this area, the previous studies showed some motivational factors that affected the decisions of nurses to continue professional education. Improving quality of patient care involves the participation of nurses in continuing education (Rebecca, 2000). The previous Jordanian study showed the consistency of result that for nurses to improve their knowledge and skills they have to participate in continuing education (Al-Bakheit, 1991). Professional reasons are what motivate nurses to participate in continuing education (F. Hayajneh, 2009). Upgrading skills and knowledge to increase professionalism are the factors that motivate Malayan nurses to participate in continuing professional education (Muthu, 2006). Increasing professional knowledge, compliance with the policy of the hospital, improvement of skills in taking care of patients and to meet the recommended goal of status are the major factors identified that motivate Hong Kong nurses to participate in continuing professional education (Lai, 2006). The study found that participating in continuing professional development had a great beneficial effect in the planning of nursing care and formulating techniques and thinking what to do in practice (A. Yfantis, I, Tiniakou E, Yfanti, 2010). Those nurses who are less satisfied with their career goals for income and advancement may realize that their work environment is stressful and they may believe that an additional nursing degree will afford them wider chance, and this will make them more motivated to enroll for higher degree program (J. I. Warren, M. E. Mills, 2009). The results showed that those nurses who are satisfied with their career are less likely to engage in continuing professional education because they are already contented with their job (J. I. Warren, et al., 2009). The patients are expecting high quality health care services from health care providers which lead them to enhance their educational status in order to meet the expectations of the patients (A. Yfantis e t al., 2010). The main goals of participating in continuing professional education are to enhance and improve practice and to make sure that the care being delivered is the highest quality that a professional can give for its patient (Claflin, 2005). Nurses supported the importance of lifelong learning and recognized the value of continuing education that assists them in coping with changes in their work environment (Hayajneh, 2009). The primary motivator to continue extended education came from personal desire, which quoted as consistent with the literature (Delaney Piscopo, 2004; Reilley, 2003). Professional knowledge, professional advancement, relief from routine, compliance with authority, improvement in social welfare skills, and improvement in social relations and acquisition of credentials are the most common factors found in the previous studies that motivates professional nurses to participate in continuing education (Kristjanson Scanlon, 1989; Thomas, 1986; Waddell, 1993). Technology and nursing practice continually change, creating a need for nurses to pursue continuing education to remain competent (D. J. Schweitzer, T. J. Krassa, 2010). Intrinsic and extrinsic motivations are the reasons why nurses participate in continuing education (Kubsch, Henniges, Lorenzoni, Eckardt, Oleniczak, 2003). With the attendance to continuing education, job satisfaction increases (Kubsch et al., 2003), burnout decreases (Espeland, 2006; Kubsch et al., 2003), and skills are updated (Sousher et al., 2999; Wood, 2006). Motivational factors includes nurses’ desire to be current, obtain immediate practical benefit, secure advancement, meet formal requirements, and interact with colleagues (Dealy Bass, 1995). One way to keep on nursing advances is to attend continuing professional education opportunities (D. J. Schweitzer, T. J. Krassa, 2010). Barriers to Continuing Professional Education The barriers are the factors that hinder professionals to continue professional education hence, making them less competent or less reliable compared to those who are motivated to enhance their skills and knowledge to perform better in the work area. Here, we will see the different barriers identified by the previous studies that affect the decision and eligibility of nurses to join in activities that will improve their skills and knowledge as a professional. The common barriers include money, family, time and interest to pursue professional education. These factors are still present since the past years and are not easy to eliminate in the list of barriers. The barriers includes the cost of tuition, responsibilities in the family, lack of information about program and work responsibilities, opinion of peers, and the attitudes (Glass, T. Atkinson, 1999).Lack of availability of courses on personal interests, lack of time, and difficulty in requesting time off from work are some of the barrier in continuing professional education (Lee, Tiwari, Choi, Yuen and Wong, 2005). Non supportive supervisors, non-supportive spouses, unchangeable work schedules, not enough funds and time, and distance of travel (Beatty, 2001). Schedule of work and responsibilities, lack of budget, travel distance to CE, and lack of available programs that will provide their needs were major barriers for nurses to continue education (Aucoin, 1998). On the other hand, According to (Yfantis, A., Tiniakou, I., and Yfanti, E, 2010) another finding is that nurses doesn’t have past experiences and also can’t assess the effectiveness because of the new programs that are established. There were consistent deterrents over the last 20 years of study regarding continuing professional education and these include lack of quality or interesting topics, lack of benefit in attending continuing education, lack of support from the administration, and peer opinions and attitudes (D. J. Schweitzer, T. J. Krassa, 2010). There were five major factors listed that prevented nurses from participating in continuing professional education and these are work commitments, time constraints, schedule of continuing education programs, domestic responsibilities, and the cost of courses which is consistent in the previous studies about continuing professional education (M. C. Chong, K. Francis, K. L. Abdullah, 2011). In the past 20 years, there were identified deterrents that are consistently present in the list of barriers and these are lack of quality or interesting topic for the participants, lack of benefit in attending Continuing Education, lack of support from the administration and the peer opinions and their attitudes. All these deterrents have a great effect on the motivation of a professional to pursue continuing education (D. J. Schweitzer, T. J. Krassa, 2010). Minimal research has been conducted to investigate the perception of rural health care providers regarding the availability and accessibility of relevant continuing education (A. Jukkala, S. Henly, L. Lindeke, 2008). There are multiple barriers experienced by the rural health care professionals when they try to access continuing professional education, geographic isolation (Curran, Fleet, Kirby, 2006; Hegge, Powers, Hendrickx, Vinson, 2002), lack of financial resources (Alexander, Chadwick, Slay, Petersen, Pass, 2002), and in ability to take time away from work (Hendrickx). There are identified natural barriers to participation in distant continuing education and these are rough geographic terrain and inclement weather which makes travel in rural areas complicated (A. Jukkala, S. Henly, L. Lindeke, 2008). Top reasons selected for not pursuing higher education included: too old, won’t earn more money, not needed by hospitals, and not needed to give good care (Altmann, 2011). Work commitments, domestic responsibilities, time constraints, scheduling of CPE activities, and cost of course are the top five most important factors that prevented nurses from participating in CPE based on the previous studies (M. C. Chong, K. Francis, K. L. Abdullah, 2011). Time constraint and family commitment were factors affecting the flexibility of the nurses’ availability for CPE such as arrangement for household chores and child care, travelling, and access to computers during nonworking time are other barriers (M. C. Chong, K. Francis, K. L. Abdullah, 2011). Younger and less experienced nurses participated in continuing professional education to a lesser level because of the financial implications associated with accessing continuing professional education (M. C. Chong, K. Francis, K. L. Ab dullah, 2011). Participation in continuing education was made as an obligation to the nurses in other countries because they knew that professionals are lacking in motivation to voluntarily update their skills and knowledge when there is no external pressure (Peà ±a et al., 2006). Requirements for Continuing Professional education There are things that a professional must have to make them eligible to participate in an activity that can help them grow as a more trustworthy person in their chosen career. In this area, the different studies showed some of the requirements needed to make a professional be engaged in an activity that will make them more proficient. In continuing professional education it is important to develop a positive attitude to benefit more and to have a significant improvement in professional self-development and growth of an individual (F. Hayajneh, 2009). Professional reasons like improving knowledge and nursing skills to provide better care for patients are stated as the reason why nurses are participating in continuing education. Study showed also that nurses are aware that they need to enhance their knowledge and skills in nursing to provide a more quality care for their patients (F. Hayajneh, 2009). Recent studies showed that senior nurses are more capable of participating in continuing education because of their higher income compared to those nurses in lower position (M. C. Chong, K. Francis, K. L. Abdullah, 2011). But this finding was contradicted by Bariball and While (1996) stating that younger and less experienced nurses favored continuing professional education. Enabling continuous professional development in health care needs a revitalizing work environment, mentoring and support for the registered nurses. Clinical managers in the United Kingdom stated that Continuing Professional Development is a very important factor in enhancing job satisfaction. Having an attainable and high level continuing educational programs are connected to job satisfaction (Andrews et al., 2005; Levett-Jones, 2005). The capacity of group to encourage and maintain health care professionals is greatly needed to convince nurses to continue professional education (Booth Lawrence, 2001; Brewer, Zayas, Kahn, Sienkiewicz, 2006). Specialization requires that nurses keep up-to-date with new information in nursing science (Hayajneh, 2009). Positive attitudes will increase the number of nurses who participate. Program developers can focus on needed continuing education content within their institutions to develop and maintain professionally and scientifically guided care for patients (Hayajneh, 2009). In order for nursing profession to achieve professionalism, nurses must develop greater skills, undertake higher educa tion, and engage in lifelong learning (Happell, 2004). Nursing prudence demands that nurses continue to advance their knowledge in nursing and its foundational disciplines (Orem, 2001). Full commitment of health care agencies and schools of nursing with dedicated mentors at all sites can identify and motivate nurses to enrol for an advanced degree. Admission, registration, advisement, and instructional support designed to ease transition to the student role are effective. Tuition support and instructional flexibility are major incentives (J. I. Warren, M. E. Mills, 2009). The nursing degree curriculum in Malaysia generally encompasses nursing sciences, behavioral science, health sciences, and information technology and communication skills. Research is an important component of degree program, student are required to attend three credit hours of research and biostatic courses, and to conduct a project with contribute six credit hours of the courses (Chong et al., 2011). The Nursing Board of Malaysia in 1998 was influenced by the globalization wave regarding development in nursing to include the requirement of CPE in the Nurses’ Code of Conduct. All nurses should have at least ten hours in CPE activities per year (Chong et al., 2011). The Malaysian Nurses’ Board required the participation of nurses in a minimum of hours of education and training each year (Chong et al., 2011). References: Andrews,M.E., Stewart,N.J., Pitblado,J.R., Morgan,D.G., Forbes,D., DArcy,C. (2005).Registered nurses working alone in rural and remote Canada.Canadian Journal of Nursing Research,37(1), 14-33. Beatty,R.M. (2001). Continuing professional education, organizational support, and professional competence: Dilemmas of rural nurses.The Journal of Continuing Education in Nursing,32(5), 203-209. Booth,B., Lawrence,R. (2001). Quality assurance and continuing education needs of rural and remoter general practitioners: How are they changing?Australian Journal of Rural Health,9(6), 265-274. Deacon,M., Warne,T., McAndrew,S. (2006). Closeness, chaos and crisis: The attraction of working in acute mental health care.Journal of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing,13, 750-757. Gould,D., Daniel,K., Len,G., Maidwell,A. (2001). The changing training needs of clinical nurse managers: exploring issues for continuing professional development.J AdvNurs, 34(1), 7-17. Griscti,O., Jacono,J. (2006). Effectiveness of Continuing education programs in nursing: Literature review.Journal of Advanced Nursing,55(4), 449-456. Hayajneh, PhD, RN,F. (2009).Attitudes of Professional Jordanian Nurses toward Continuing Education.The Journal of Continuing Education in Nursing,40(1), 44. Huseman,R.C. (2009). The importance of positive culture in hospitals.Journals of Nursing Administration,39, 60-63. Lee,A.C. K., Tiwari,A.F. Y., Choi,E.W. H., Yuen,K.H., Wong,A. (2005). Hong Kong nurses’ perceptions of and participation in continuing education.The Journal of Continuing Education in Nursing,36(5), 205-212. Schweitzer,D.J., Krassa,T.J. (2010). Deterrents to Nurses Participation in Continuing Professional Development.The Journal of Continuing Education in Nursing,41(10), 441-447. Rebecca,M.B. (2000).Rural nurses attitudes toward participation in continuing professional education.Unpublished doctoral dissertation, Pennsylvania State University, State College. Yfantis,A., Tiniakou,I., Yfanti,E. (2010).Nurses attitudes regarding Continuing Professional Development in a district hospital in Greece.Health Science Journal,4(3), 198.

Theories of How Individuals Interact in Groups in HSC

Theories of How Individuals Interact in Groups in HSC 2.1 Write an assay explaining theories of how individuals interact in groups, particularly applying them to teams that work in your Health and Social Care setting. The relationship between classical Grounded Theory (Glaser, 1978; Glaser Strauss, 1967) and the interpretive tradition of Symbolic Interactionism is strong and historical. Although this relationship has been discussed in previous publications as a given limited literature has explained the connections between their silent assumptions and concepts precisely and thoroughly (Chenitz Swanson, 1986; Crotty, 1998; Speziale Carpenter, 2007). Bruce Tuckman (1965) developed a 4-stage model of group development, this is his theory on how Health and Social Care professionals should be working effectively in managing human resources. The four stages of his theories are; Forming, Storming, Norming and Performing and also added a fifth stage of model to group development after 10 years which is Adjourning. The fifth model is when a professional breaks the knot and leaves the group without informing anyone. Forming: The group comes together and gets to initially know one other and form as a group. Forming is when a new set of Health and Social Care professionals are introducing one another by communicating and interacting in a group. They exchange information and set a target to be met as successful team work. The manager will need to set a clear guild to the Health and Social Care workers and it must be followed effectively so the colleagues avoid any misbehaviours and prevent from problems arising between each other in a team work. Forming is where a big group of Health and Social Care professionals are depending on one particular individual whom is a team leader or their role model, this person will have a huge responsibility in guiding the group of Health and Social Care professional to the right path in their carer to pass their activities. An agreement on team aims other than received from team leader. In this team individuals are not certain of their own role or responsibilities as they are all depending on one person who is the team leader. The team leader has skills and knowledge and must be willing to answer all the questions about the team purpose, activities and external relationships. Individuals test tolerance of system and leader directs to telling mode as he is in charge of the team and tells everyone to do what he wishes. Storming: A chaotic vying for leadership trialling of group processes. Storming is when a group of members dont agree with each others decisions, team members attempt to establish themselves in relation to another member in the team or team leader, who might receive challenging behaviour from a team member in disagreeing with decisions made. At this stage issues are developed over members having their own views rather than a whole team agreeing to one point of view. A team will only have conflict rising when they are not working effectively and the team leader is managing the group following the guild lines.   The improvement guide: a practical approach to enhancing organizational performance (GJ Langley, RD Moen, KM Nolan, TW Nolanà ¢Ã¢â€š ¬Ã‚ ¦ 2009 books.google.com). Norming: Eventually an agreement is reached on how the group operates (norming) The third step, norming, is where the team members fall into agreement over the solutions for their team. In this step, the team members are able to talk openly about their opinions and have the ability to adjust their behaviour to avoid conflict. The team members agree on the teams values, rules, professional behaviour and methods of work (Armstrong, 2006). Performing: The group practices its craft and becomes effective in meeting its objectives. The final step, performing, is where the team fully understands, co-operates and supports one another, thereby working as a single unit rather than individuals. Teams that have reached this step display high levels of motivation, knowledge, competence and autonomy (Armstrong, 2006) Adjourning: The process of without informing the group, that is, letting go of the group structure and moving on. This is the fifth and last step Bruce Tuckman (1965) developed which breaks the team apart without any signals showing. References Aldiabat, Khaldoun M; Le Navenec, Carole-Lynne. The Qualitative Report; Fort Lauderdale16.4 (Jul 2011): 1063-1080. http://search.proquest.com/openview/55df192e1247c417cbc00ba1b141ca1d/1?pq-origsite=gscholarcbl=55152 http://www.tandfonline.com/doi/abs/10.1080/01933928808411771?src=recsys

The History of the Antitrust Laws Essay -- U.S. Law

In the 1800’s there were several businesses known as trusts. These â€Å"trusts† owned the entire industry. Railroads, sugar, oil, and steel were some of the major products that were controlled by these trusts. U.S. Steel and Standard Oil were two big companies that were famous for controlling their product and the industry it was a part of. The oil industry was an easy industry to be monopolized because the deposits were rare. The Standard Oil Company was incorporated by John D. Rockefeller in Ohio in 1870. At the time, the refining business was highly competitive, and Standard Oil had more than 250 competitors. Rockefeller and his associates took advantage of both the scarcity of oil and the returns produced from it to lay down a monopoly, with no help from the banks. The industry practices and questionable strategy that Rockefeller used to form Standard Oil made the Enron mass feel ashamed, but the completed product was not near as harmful to the market or the environment as the industry was previous to Rockefeller monopolizing it. There once were a lot of oil companies competing to make the most of their find. Companies would pump waste products into the rivers or on the ground because it cost too much for research on how to dispose of it properly. They also slashed costs by pumping through poor pipelines that were famous for seepage. Standard Oil eventually owned 90% of oil production and distribution in the United States, and they had learned how to make money off of their waste products. Vaseline was one of many of the new products formed. Andrew Carnegie went a lengthy way in producing a monopoly in the steel industry U.S. Steel, a gigantic corporation nearly reaching the magnitude of Standard Oil. U.S. Steel ... ...rman+Act Antitrust: An Overview. ANTITRUST. Legal Information Institute. Cornell University Law School. http://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/Antitrust Sherman Anti-Trust Act. LawBrain. http://lawbrain.com/wiki/Sherman_Anti-Trust_Act Clayton Act. LawBrain. http://lawbrain.com/wiki/Clayton_Act Herbert Hovenkamp. Clayton Act (1914). Enotes. Major Acts of Congress,  ©2004 Gale Cengage. http://www.enotes.com/clayton-act-1914-reference/clayton-act-1914 Herbert Hovenkamp. Federal Trade Commission Act (1914). Enotes. Major Acts of Congress,  ©2004 Gale Cengage. http://www.enotes.com/federal-trade-commission-act-1914-100734-reference/federal-trade-commission-act-1914 Herbert Hovenkamp. Sherman Antitrust Act (1890). Enotes. Major Acts of Congress,  ©2004 Gale Cengage. http://www.enotes.com/sherman-antitrust-act-1890-101422-reference/sherman-antitrust-act-1890

Comparing Societies Weakness from the Perspective of Two Authors :: Compare Contrast Comparison

Comparing Societies Weakness from the Perspective of Two Authors Carol Travis and Ellen Goodman are both writers from different backgrounds with different experiences, but they share a common opinion. Both writers find a weakness with in our society. In the article In Groups We Shrink From Loner’s Heroics Travis expresses his views on societies weakness. He believes our weakness lies in the lack of emergency response in groups. In the article Countering the Culture of Sex Goodman feels the weakness is lack of sexual education given to teenagers. Though they both have different opinions, they represent a strong case for both sides. In Carol Tavris’ article, In Groups We Shrink From Loner’s Heroics, there is information about a social concern. Tavris feels that society does not respond to emergencies the same in groups as they do individually. â€Å"Something happens to individuals when they collect in a group. They think and act differently than they would on their own. Most people, if they observe some disaster or danger on their own – a woman being stabbed, a pedestrian slammed by a it-and-run driver – will at least call for help; many will even risk their own safety to intervene. But if they are in a group observing the same danger, they hold back.† (Tavris, 17) Even though people were put through, identical test the ones who were in the group atmosphere did not respond as much as the people who where alone. â€Å"In one experiment in behavioral psychology, students were seated in a room, either alone, or in-groups of three, as staged an emergency occurred: Smoke began pou ring through the vents. Students who were on there own usually hesitated a minute, got up, checked the vents and then went out to report what certainly seemed like a fire. But the students who were sitting in groups of three did not move. They sat there for six minutes, with smoke so thick they could barely see, rubbing their eyes and coughing.† (Tavris, 18) Travis uses famous example such as Rodney King, who was beaten by 4 police officers while in front of 11 other officers, and Kitty Genovese, who was repediatly stabbed to death in front of her 38 neighbors. Tavris believes that people should be more responsive in groups then they currently are. Ellen Goodman’s article, Countering the Culture of Sex, is an article that describes a different perspective of societal flaw.

Comparing Jane Eyre and Yellow Wallpaper -- Comparison Compare Contras

Similarities Between Jane Eyre and Yellow Wallpaper   Ã‚   There are notable similarities between Charlotte Perkins Gilman's The Yellow Wallpaper and Charlotte Bronte's Jane Eyre. These similarities include the treatment of space, the use of a gothic tone with elements of realism, a sense of male superiority, and the mental instability of women. There is a similar treatment of space in the two works, with the larger, upstairs rooms at the summer lodging and at Thornfield Hall being associated with insanity and the smaller rooms below being safer and saner. Gilman's narrator expresses an early desire to move downstairs to a smaller, saner room, but her wish is ignored. Large rooms become haunted rooms in both stories as typified by the room with the yellow wallpaper, the Red Room, and the third floor room beyond which Bertha is confined. Both works contain gothic elements, but there is a conscious effort on the part of both narrators to dispel the gothic tone with elements of realism. Gilman's narrator begins to describe her eerie summer lodgings, but notes "there was some legal trouble with the heirs and co-heirs... That spoils my ghostliness, I am afraid" (11). Jane likewise is both affected by and resists the supernatural. For instance, she notes along with Grace Poole's fantastic laughter, her affinity for beer. However, the most notable similarity between the two works is the presence in each house of a "madwoman in the attic" (to borrow from Gilbert and Gubar). In the case of Gilman's narrator (unnamed, but with one ambiguous reference that it may be Jane) and Bertha, madness id the result of traditional Victorian marriages, from which both transgress. Clearly implied in Gilman's text and interpretable in Bronte's ... ...e Perkins. The Yellow Wallpaper. New York: Feminist Press, 1973. Golden, Catherine, ed. The Captive Imagination: A Casebook on "The Yellow Wallpaper." New York: Feminist Press, 1992. ------. "The Writing of 'The Yellow Wallpaper': A Double Palimpsest." Studies in American Fiction. 17 (1989): 193-201. Haney-Peritz, Janice. "Monumental Feminism and Literature's Ancestral House: Another Look at 'The Yellow Wallpaper'" Women's Studies. 12 (1986): 113-128. Kasmer, Lisa. "Charlotte Perkins Gilman's 'The Yellow Wallpaper': A Symptomatic Reading." Literature and Psychology. 36, (1990): 1-15. Lodge, Scott. "Fire and Eyre: Charlotte Bronte's War of Earthly Elements." The Brontes: A Collection of Critical Essays. Ed. Ian Gregor. Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice Hall, 1970. 110-36. Maynard, John. Charlotte Bronte and Sexuality. Cambridge: Cambridge UP, 1984.

Reflections on Social Work Essay

Social work is a profession that requires commitment to improving the lives of others as well as the community around you. As a social worker, the NASW Code of Ethics which states the mission you have as a social a social work professional. The mission â€Å"is to enhance human well-being and help meet the basic human needs of all people, with particular attention to the needs and empowerment of people who are vulnerable, oppressed, and living in poverty.† (NASW, 2008). By following these ethics, social workers are leading by example and showing that they have respect for not only their responsibilities as a social worker but more importantly, their clients. The Code of Ethics contains four major sections that make it up as a whole. The most important part of the Code may very well be the six core values: 1. Service, 2. Social justice, 3. Dignity and worth of a person, 4.Importance of human relationships, 5. Integrity, and 6. Competence. These six values outline the essence of what it means to be a social worker. By demonstrating these values through your actions as a social worker, you are showing compassion, trustworthiness, and integrity. These are just a few of the key characteristics that are essential to this profession. Although it can be hard at times, you must keep a non-biased attitude towards your clients’ situation in order to handle a situation in the most professional manner possible. Social work unique from other helping professions in that you are not only improving the life of a client, group, or family, but working hand in hand with the community around you. It is important to embrace these values in order to successfully improve the welfare of everyone involved in your profession. From a young age I believe that I have always had a passion for helping others. Helping professions also run in my family; my mother is a preschool teacher and one of the most compassionate women I know. My father has a business degree but he has surprisingly been my biggest inspiration to pursue a career in social work. In his spare time, my father is a very active member of our church and does everything he can to help with fundraisers and goes into the city every month to feed the homeless. He is also a member of Big Brothers Big Sisters in Baltimore and even won â€Å"Big Brother of the Year.† He is selfless and puts in time for these things even  with his busy career. He has encouraged me to make the most of my college years and to pursue a degree that makes me happy, not necessarily one that paid the most. In high school, at the time, I thought that my calling was to be a veterinarian and help animals. I began my college career at a small school in Pennsylvania but soon after figured out that the school and the path to being a veterinarian was not for me. When I transferred to Shepherd, I switched my major to elementary education. After the first semester, I had a chance to job shadow and take an education course but again I did not feel this major was quite the right fit. I thought long and hard about what major I could pursue that would fulfill my passion for working with children as well as help them. That is when I realized that social work was the perfect match for me. Over the past few summers, I have worked at a YMCA summer camp as a counselor. In my position, I worked with the age group of five and six year olds. However, my job went deeper than just simply supervising kids and planning activities. An aspect of my job that I never thought would affect me were the parents. Every day when the kids would get dropped off at camp I would get a chance to speak with the parents and also get a small feel for what this child’s life was like at home. It fascinated me that by just the parents I could get a glimpse of why a child behaved the way they did. It really got me thinking about how I could positively impact the lives of these children by simply making their summer at this camp a wonderful experience. It occurred to me that some of these children do not get to spend any time with their parents because they work all day every day and this is why they are at camp. It made me sad for these kids but at the same time motivated me to be the best counselor possible. As a social worker, I hope to have a profession that involves helping children; being a school guidance counselor, a therapist, or p ossibly even being a social worker in the pediatric ward of a hospital. Social work will be a good fit for me as a helping profession because I believe I have a passion for seeing and helping people improve. Some important characteristics I possess that will help me reach my potential in this profession are good listening skills, integrity towards others, compassion, and most importantly willingness to help others. A key aspect that sets social work apart from other helping professions is putting other people before yourself. This is not say that you should completely disregard your own feelings and more importantly gut feelings  about a situation, but you must be willing to put your biases aside in order to fully assist your clients. I have always been good at listening to others when they are having problems and just need a shoulder to lean on. I think that listening is extremely important, maybe even more important than giving advice. Sometimes you do not need to give your opinion or advice, but by simply listening, you are helping someone take that weight of what they were feeling off of their shoulders. Some expectations that I have of the social work profession that it will not a lways be easy and that there is potential for emotional burnout and stress. Some reservations that I have about being a social worker is that I may become too emotionally involved with a client’s situation. I know it is important to stay as impartial as possible and stay focused on helping your client in the best way you know how. It is also important to have a good relationship with your clients but at the same time you need to remain professional and unbiased. Since I want to have a job that involves working with children, it may be difficult at times to not get emotionally connected. It is harder with children because they are helpless in their living and family situations. For example, if a child is being abused at home it might be hard to not get upset and want to reach out and help that child. You are helping the child but you must do it in a way that is looking out for the child’s best interest and without getting too emotionally and personally involved. A practice setting that I would be attracted to working in would be a school or a ho spital setting. Working in a school setting, I could work face to face and individually with children as well as even groups and classrooms of children. Being a guidance counselor or just a school social worker in general, I could educate children as well as help them with their individual problems. In a hospital setting I would want to work in a pediatric setting. Working in this setting would allow me to help children who are recovering or going through traumatic sicknesses. Being able to help children who are probably scared in the hospital, I would be able to help them alongside with their families to make the experience of being in a hospital as painless as possible. A setting that does not appeal to me would be working with the geriatric population. I have visited nursing homes a handful of times to see relatives that were sick or no longer able to take care of themselves and I do not like the atmosphere. The thought of growing old and death are things that I  am not very comfortable with. However I think it is important to keep my options open and maybe later on I will develop more interest in this area after taking more social work courses. An aspect of social work that appeals to me is that no matter what work setting you are in, you are able to work alongside other professions as well to reach a common goal. Although this was only an introduction course and a small glimpse into the social work profession, I can see that that there are endless possibilities with a social work degree. It opened my eyes to so many career options that I never even knew about before and even sparked new interests. I hope that one day I have a fulfilling and rewarding career as a social worker and make a difference in the world, even if it is small.

Cisa

1. A benefit of open system architecture is that it: A. facilitates interoperability. B. facilitates the integration of proprietary components. C. will be a basis for volume discounts from equipment vendors. D. allows for the achievement of more economies of scale for equipment. ANSWER: A NOTE: Open systems are those for which suppliers provide components whose interfaces are defined by public standards, thus facilitating interoperability between systems made by different vendors. In contrast, closed system components are built to proprietary standards so that other suppliers' systems cannot or will not interface with existing systems. . An IS auditor discovers that developers have operator access to the command line of a production environment operating system. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the risk of undetected and unauthorized program changes to the production environment? A. Commands typed on the command line are logged B. Hash keys are calculated periodica lly for programs and matched against hash keys calculated for the most recent authorized versions of the programs C. Access to the operating system command line is granted through an access restriction tool with preapproved rights D.Software development tools and compilers have been removed from the production environment ANSWER: B NOTE: The matching of hash keys over time would allow detection of changes to files. Choice A is incorrect because having a log is not a control, reviewing the log is a control. Choice C is incorrect because the access was already granted—it does not matter how. Choice D is wrong because files can be copied to and from the production environment. 3. In the context of effective information security governance, the primary objective of value delivery is to: A. optimize security investments in support of business objectives.B. implement a standard set of security practices. C. institute a standards-based solution. D. implement a continuous improvement culture. ANSWER: A NOTE: In the context of effective information security governance, value delivery is implemented to ensure optimization of security investments in support of business objectives. The tools and techniques for implementing value delivery include implementation of a standard set of security practices, institutionalization and commoditization of standards-based solutions, and implementation of a continuous improvement culture considering security as a process, not an event. 4.During a review of a business continuity plan, an IS auditor noticed that the point at which a situation is declared to be a crisis has not been defined. The MAJOR risk associated with this is that: A. assessment of the situation may be delayed. B. execution of the disaster recovery plan could be impacted. C. notification of the teams might not occur. D. potential crisis recognition might be ineffective. ANSWER: B NOTE: Execution of the business continuity plan would be impacted if the organizat ion does not know when to declare a crisis. Choices A, C and D are steps that must be performed to know whether to declare a crisis.Problem and severity assessment would provide information necessary in declaring a disaster. Once a potential crisis is recognized, the teams responsible for crisis management need to be notified. Delaying this step until a disaster has been declared would negate the effect of having response teams. Potential crisis recognition is the first step in responding to a disaster. 5. When implementing an IT governance framework in an organization the MOST important objective is: A. IT alignment with the business. B. accountability. C. value realization with IT. D. enhancing the return on IT investments.ANSWER: A NOTE: The goals of IT governance are to improve IT performance, to deliver optimum business value and to ensure regulatory compliance. The key practice in support of these goals is the strategic alignment of IT with the business (choice A). To achieve alignment, all other choices need to be tied to business practices and strategies. 6. When reviewing an implementation of a VoIP system over a corporate WAN, an IS auditor should expect to find: A. an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link. B. traffic engineering. C. wired equivalent privacy (WEP) encryption of data.D. analog phone terminals. ANSWER: B NOTE: To ensure that quality of service requirements are achieved, the Voice-over IP (VoIP) service over the wide area network (WAN) should be protected from packet losses, latency or jitter. To reach this objective, the network performance can be managed using statistical techniques such as traffic engineering. The standard bandwidth of an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link would not provide the quality of services required for corporate VoIP services. WEP is an encryption scheme related to wireless networking.The VoIP phones are usually connected to a corporate local area network (LAN) and are not ana log. 7. An IS auditor selects a server for a penetration test that will be carried out by a technical specialist. Which of the following is MOST important? A. The tools used to conduct the test B. Certifications held by the IS auditor C. Permission from the data owner of the server D. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is enabled ANSWER: C NOTE: The data owner should be informed of the risks associated with a penetration test, what types of tests are to be conducted and other relevant details.All other choices are not as important as the data owner's responsibility for the security of the data assets. 8. Which of the following is a risk of cross-training? A. Increases the dependence on one employee B. Does not assist in succession planning C. One employee may know all parts of a system D. Does not help in achieving a continuity of operations ANSWER: C NOTE: When cross-training, it would be prudent to first assess the risk of any person knowing all parts of a system and what exposur es this may cause. Cross-training has the advantage of decreasing dependence on one employee and, hence, can be part of succession planning.It also provides backup for personnel in the event of absence for any reason and thereby facilitates the continuity of operations. 9. The use of digital signatures: A. requires the use of a one-time password generator. B. provides encryption to a message. C. validates the source of a message. D. ensures message confidentiality. ANSWER: C NOTE: The use of a digital signature verifies the identity of the sender, but does not encrypt the whole message, and hence is not enough to ensure confidentiality. A one-time password generator is an option, but is not a requirement for using digital signatures. 0. A retail outlet has introduced radio frequency identification (RFID) tags to create unique serial numbers for all products. Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern associated with this initiative? A. Issues of privacy B. Wavelength can be absor bed by the human body C. RFID tags may not be removable D. RFID eliminates line-of-sight reading ANSWER: A NOTE: The purchaser of an item will not necessarily be aware of the presence of the tag. If a tagged item is paid for by credit card, it would be possible to tie the unique ID of that item to the identity of the purchaser.Privacy violations are a significant concern because RFID can carry unique identifier numbers. If desired it would be possible for a firm to track individuals who purchase an item containing an RFID. Choices B and C are concerns of less importance. Choice D is not a concern. 11. A lower recovery time objective (RTO) results in: A. higher disaster tolerance. B. higher cost. C. wider interruption windows. D. more permissive data loss. ANSWER: B NOTE: A recovery time objective (RTO) is based on the acceptable downtime in case of a disruption of operations. The lower the RTO, the higher the cost of recovery strategies.The lower the disaster tolerance, the narrower the interruption windows, and the lesser the permissive data loss. 12. During the requirements definition phase of a software development project, the aspects of software testing that should be addressed are developing: A. test data covering critical applications. B. detailed test plans. C. quality assurance test specifications. D. user acceptance testing specifications. ANSWER: D NOTE: A key objective in any software development project is to ensure that the developed software will meet the business objectives and the requirements of the user.The users should be involved in the requirements definition phase of a development project and user acceptance test specification should be developed during this phase. The other choices are generally performed during the system testing phase. 13. The BEST filter rule for protecting a network from being used as an amplifier in a denial of service (DoS) attack is to deny all: A. outgoing traffic with IP source addresses external to the network . B. incoming traffic with discernible spoofed IP source addresses. C. incoming traffic with IP options set.D. incoming traffic to critical hosts. ANSWER: A NOTE: Outgoing traffic with an IP source address different than the IP range in the network is invalid. In most of the cases, it signals a DoS attack originated by an internal user or by a previously compromised internal machine; in both cases, applying this filter will stop the attack. 14. What is the BEST backup strategy for a large database with data supporting online sales? A. Weekly full backup with daily incremental backup B. Daily full backup C. Clustered servers D. Mirrored hard disks ANSWER: ANOTE: Weekly full backup and daily incremental backup is the best backup strategy; it ensures the ability to recover the database and yet reduces the daily backup time requirements. A full backup normally requires a couple of hours, and therefore it can be impractical to conduct a full backup every day. Clustered servers provide a redundant processing capability, but are not a backup. Mirrored hard disks will not help in case of disaster. 15. Which of the following is a feature of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) in wireless networks? A. Session keys are dynamicB. Private symmetric keys are used C. Keys are static and shared D. Source addresses are not encrypted or authenticated ANSWER: A NOTE: WPA uses dynamic session keys, achieving stronger encryption than wireless encryption privacy (WEP), which operates with static keys (same key is used for everyone in the wireless network). All other choices are weaknesses of WEP. 16. The ultimate purpose of IT governance is to: A. encourage optimal use of IT. B. reduce IT costs. C. decentralize IT resources across the organization. D. centralize control of IT. ANSWER: ANOTE: IT governance is intended to specify the combination of decision rights and accountability that is best for the enterprise. It is different for every enterprise. Reducing IT costs may not be the best IT governance outcome for an enterprise. Decentralizing IT resources across the organization is not always desired, although it may be desired in a decentralized environment. Centralizing control of IT is not always desired. An example of where it might be desired is an enterprise desiring a single point of customer contact. 17. The MAIN purpose of a transaction audit trail is to:A. reduce the use of storage media. B. determine accountability and responsibility for processed transactions. C. help an IS auditor trace transactions. D. provide useful information for capacity planning. ANSWER: B NOTE: Enabling audit trails aids in establishing the accountability and responsibility for processed transactions by tracing them through the information system. Enabling audit trails increases the use of disk space. A transaction log file would be used to trace transactions, but would not aid in determining accountability and responsibility.The objective of capacity planning is the efficient an d effective use of IT resources and requires information such as CPU utilization, bandwidth, number of users, etc. 18. An IS auditor invited to a development project meeting notes that no project risks have been documented. When the IS auditor raises this issue, the project manager responds that it is too early to identify risks and that, if risks do start impacting the project, a risk manager will be hired. The appropriate response of the IS auditor would be to: A. tress the importance of spending time at this point in the project to consider and document risks, and to develop contingency plans. B. accept the project manager's position as the project manager is accountable for the outcome of the project. C. offer to work with the risk manager when one is appointed. D. inform the project manager that the IS auditor will conduct a review of the risks at the completion of the requirements definition phase of the project. ANSWER: A NOTE: The majority of project risks can typically be i dentified before a project begins, allowing mitigation/avoidance plans to be put in place to deal with these risks.A project should have a clear link back to corporate strategy and tactical plans to support this strategy. The process of setting corporate strategy, setting objectives and developing tactical plans should include the consideration of risks. Appointing a risk manager is a good practice but waiting until the project has been impacted by risks is misguided. Risk management needs to be forward looking; allowing risks to evolve into issues that adversely impact the project represents a failure of risk management.With or without a risk manager, persons within and outside of the project team need to be consulted and encouraged to comment when they believe new risks have emerged or risk priorities have changed. The IS auditor has an obligation to the project sponsor and the organization to advise on appropriate project management practices. Waiting for the possible appointment of a risk manager represents an unnecessary and dangerous delay to implementing risk management. 19. A data center has a badge-entry system. Which of the following is MOST important to protect the computing assets in the center?A. Badge readers are installed in locations where tampering would be noticed B. The computer that controls the badge system is backed up frequently C. A process for promptly deactivating lost or stolen badges exists D. All badge entry attempts are logged ANSWER: C NOTE: Tampering with a badge reader cannot open the door, so this is irrelevant. Logging the entry attempts may be of limited value. The biggest risk is from unauthorized individuals who can enter the data center, whether they are employees or not. Thus, a process of deactivating lost or stolen badges is important.The configuration of the system does not change frequently, therefore frequent backup is not necessary. 20. Which of the following would impair the independence of a quality assurance tea m? A. Ensuring compliance with development methods B. Checking the testing assumptions C. Correcting coding errors during the testing process D. Checking the code to ensure proper documentation ANSWER: C NOTE: Correction of code should not be a responsibility of the quality assurance team as it would not ensure segregation of duties and would impair the team's independence. The other choices are valid quality assurance functions. 1. Which of the following is the BEST type of program for an organization to implement to aggregate, correlate and store different log and event files, and then produce weekly and monthly reports for IS auditors? A. A security information event management (SIEM) product B. An open-source correlation engine C. A log management tool D. An extract, transform, load (ETL) system ANSWER: C NOTE: A log management tool is a product designed to aggregate events from many log files (with distinct formats and from different sources), store them and typically correlate them offline to produce many reports (e. . , exception reports showing different statistics including anomalies and suspicious activities), and to answer time-based queries (e. g. , how many users have entered the system between 2 a. m. and 4 a. m. over the past three weeks? ). A SIEM product has some similar features. It correlates events from log files, but does it online and normally is not oriented to storing many weeks of historical information and producing audit reports. A correlation engine is part of a SIEM product. It is oriented to making an online correlation of events.An extract, transform, load (ETL) is part of a business intelligence system, dedicated to extracting operational or production data, transforming that data and loading them to a central repository (data warehouse or data mart); an ETL does not correlate data or produce reports, and normally it does not have extractors to read log file formats. 22. To ensure authentication, confidentiality and integrity of a message, the sender should encrypt the hash of the message with the sender's: A. public key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's private key. B. private key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's public key.C. public key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's public key. D. private key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's private key. ANSWER: B NOTE: Obtaining the hash of the message ensures integrity; signing the hash of the message with the sender's private key ensures the authenticity of the origin, and encrypting the resulting message with the receiver's public key ensures confidentiality. The other choices are incorrect. 23. An IS auditor observes a weakness in the tape management system at a data center in that some parameters are set to bypass or ignore tape header records.Which of the following is the MOST effective compensating control for this weakness? A. Staging and job set up B. Supervisory review of logs C. Regular back-up of tapes D. Offsite storage of tapes ANSWER: A NOTE: If the IS auditor finds that there are effective staging and job set up processes, this can be accepted as a compensating control. Choice B is a detective control while choices C and D are corrective controls, none of which would serve as good compensating controls. 24. What is the MOST prevalent security risk when an organization implements remote virtual private network (VPN) access to its network?A. Malicious code could be spread across the network B. VPN logon could be spoofed C. Traffic could be sniffed and decrypted D. VPN gateway could be compromised ANSWER: A NOTE: VPN is a mature technology; VPN devices are hard to break. However, when remote access is enabled, malicious code in a remote client could spread to the organization's network. Though choices B, C and D are security risks, VPN technology largely mitigates these risks. 25. The activation of an enterprise's business continuity plan should be based on predetermine d criteria that address the: A. duration of the outage. B. ype of outage. C. probability of the outage. D. cause of the outage. ANSWER: A NOTE: The initiation of a business continuity plan (action) should primarily be based on the maximum period for which a business function can be disrupted before the disruption threatens the achievement of organizational objectives. 26. After observing suspicious activities in a server, a manager requests a forensic analysis. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the investigator? A. Server is a member of a workgroup and not part of the server domain B. Guest account is enabled on the server C.Recently, 100 users were created in the server D. Audit logs are not enabled for the server ANSWER: D NOTE: Audit logs can provide evidence which is required to proceed with an investigation and should not be disabled. For business needs, a server can be a member of a workgroup and, therefore, not a concern. Having a guest account enab led on a system is a poor security practice but not a forensic investigation concern. Recently creating 100 users in the server may have been required to meet business needs and should not be a concern. 27. Minimum password length and password complexity verification are examples of: A. etection controls. B. control objectives. C. audit objectives. D. control procedures. ANSWER: D NOTE: Control procedures are practices established by management to achieve specific control objectives. Password controls are preventive controls, not detective controls. Control objectives are declarations of expected results from implementing controls and audit objectives are the specific goals of an audit. 28. Which of the following is an advantage of the top-down approach to software testing? A. Interface errors are identified early B. Testing can be started before all programs are complete C.It is more effective than other testing approaches D. Errors in critical modules are detected sooner ANSWER: A NOTE: The advantage of the top-down approach is that tests of major functions are conducted early, thus enabling the detection of interface errors sooner. The most effective testing approach is dependent on the environment being tested. Choices B and D are advantages of the bottom-up approach to system testing. 29. After initial investigation, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that fraud may be present. The IS auditor should: A. expand activities to determine whether an investigation is warranted.B. report the matter to the audit committee. C. report the possibility of fraud to top management and ask how they would like to proceed. D. consult with external legal counsel to determine the course of action to be taken. ANSWER: A NOTE: An IS auditor's responsibilities for detecting fraud include evaluating fraud indicators and deciding whether any additional action is necessary or whether an investigation should be recommended. The IS auditor should notify the appropriate authoritie s within the organization only if it has determined that the indicators of fraud are sufficient to recommend an investigation.Normally, the IS auditor does not have authority to consult with external legal counsel. 30. As a driver of IT governance, transparency of IT's cost, value and risks is primarily achieved through: A. performance measurement. B. strategic alignment. C. value delivery. D. resource management. ANSWER: A NOTE: Performance measurement includes setting and monitoring measurable objectives of what the IT processes need to deliver (process outcome) and how they deliver it (process capability and performance). Strategic alignment primarily focuses on ensuring linkage of business and IT plans.Value delivery is about executing the value proposition throughout the delivery cycle. Resource management is about the optimal investment in and proper management of critical IT resources. Transparency is primarily achieved through performance measurement as it provides informati on to the stakeholders on how well the enterprise is performing when compared to objectives. 31. A technical lead who was working on a major project has left the organization. The project manager reports suspicious system activities on one of the servers that is accessible to the whole team.What would be of GREATEST concern if discovered during a forensic investigation? A. Audit logs are not enabled for the system B. A logon ID for the technical lead still exists C. Spyware is installed on the system D. A Trojan is installed on the system ANSWER: A NOTE: Audit logs are critical to the investigation of the event; however, if not enabled, misuse of the logon ID of the technical lead and the guest account could not be established. The logon ID of the technical lead should have been deleted as soon as the employee left the organization but, without audit logs, misuse of the ID is difficult to prove.Spyware installed on the system is a concern but could have been installed by any user an d, again, without the presence of logs, discovering who installed the spyware is difficult. A Trojan installed on the system is a concern, but it can be done by any user as it is accessible to the whole group and, without the presence of logs, investigation would be difficult. 32. When using a universal storage bus (USB) flash drive to transport confidential corporate data to an offsite location, an effective control would be to: A. carry the flash drive in a portable safe. B. assure management that you will not lose the flash drive. C. equest that management deliver the flash drive by courier. D. encrypt the folder containing the data with a strong key. ANSWER: D NOTE: Encryption, with a strong key, is the most secure method for protecting the information on the flash drive. Carrying the flash drive in a portable safe does not guarantee the safety of the information in the event that the safe is stolen or lost. No matter what measures you take, the chance of losing the flash drive still exists. It is possible that a courier might lose the flash drive or that it might be stolen. 33. The FIRST step in a successful attack to a system would be: A. gathering information. B. aining access. C. denying services. D. evading detection. ANSWER: A NOTE: Successful attacks start by gathering information about the target system. This is done in advance so that the attacker gets to know the target systems and their vulnerabilities. All of the other choices are based on the information gathered. 34. An IS auditor finds that conference rooms have active network ports. Which of the following is MOST important to ensure? A. The corporate network is using an intrusion prevention system (IPS) B. This part of the network is isolated from the corporate network C. A single sign-on has been implemented in the corporate network D.Antivirus software is in place to protect the corporate network ANSWER: B NOTE: If the conference rooms have access to the corporate network, unauthorized us ers may be able to connect to the corporate network; therefore, both networks should be isolated either via a firewall or being physically separated. An IPS would detect possible attacks, but only after they have occurred. A single sign-on would ease authentication management. Antivirus software would reduce the impact of possible viruses; however, unauthorized users would still be able to access the corporate network, which is the biggest risk. 5. While observing a full simulation of the business continuity plan, an IS auditor notices that the notification systems within the organizational facilities could be severely impacted by infrastructural damage. The BEST recommendation the IS auditor can provide to the organization is to ensure: A. the salvage team is trained to use the notification system. B. the notification system provides for the recovery of the backup. C. redundancies are built into the notification system. D. the notification systems are stored in a vault. ANSWER: CNO TE: If the notification system has been severely impacted by the damage, redundancy would be the best control. The salvage team would not be able to use a severely damaged notification system, even if they are trained to use it. The recovery of the backups has no bearing on the notification system and storing the notification system in a vault would be of little value if the building is damaged. 36. The human resources (HR) department has developed a system to allow employees to enroll in benefits via a web site on the corporate Intranet. Which of the following would protect the confidentiality of the data?A. SSL encryption B. Two-factor authentication C. Encrypted session cookies D. IP address verification ANSWER: A NOTE: The main risk in this scenario is confidentiality, therefore the only option which would provide confidentiality is Secure Socket Layer (SSL) encryption. The remaining options deal with authentication issues. 37. Regarding a disaster recovery plan, the role of an IS auditor should include: A. identifying critical applications. B. determining the external service providers involved in a recovery test. C. observing the tests of the disaster recovery plan. D. etermining the criteria for establishing a recovery time objective (RTO). ANSWER: C NOTE: The IS auditor should be present when disaster recovery plans are tested, to ensure that the test meets the targets for restoration, and the recovery procedures are effective and efficient. As appropriate, the auditor should provide a report of the test results. All other choices are a responsibility of management. 38. Which of the following is the BEST practice to ensure that access authorizations are still valid? A. Information owner provides authorization for users to gain access B. Identity management is integrated with human resource processes C.Information owners periodically review the access controls D. An authorization matrix is used to establish validity of access ANSWER: B NOTE: Personnel a nd departmental changes can result in authorization creep and can impact the effectiveness of access controls. Many times when personnel leave an organization, or employees are promoted, transferred or demoted, their system access is not fully removed, which increases the risk of unauthorized access. The best practices for ensuring access authorization is still valid is to integrate identity management with human resources processes.When an employee transfers to a different function, access rights are adjusted at the same time. 39. The application systems of an organization using open-source software have no single recognized developer producing patches. Which of the following would be the MOST secure way of updating open-source software? A. Rewrite the patches and apply them B. Code review and application of available patches C. Develop in-house patches D. Identify and test suitable patches before applying them ANSWER: D NOTE: Suitable patches from the existing developers should be selected and tested before applying them.Rewriting the patches and applying them is not a correct answer because it would require skilled resources and time to rewrite the patches. Code review could be possible but tests need to be performed before applying the patches. Since the system was developed outside the organization, the IT department may not have the necessary skills and resources to develop patches. 40. Which of the following is a prevalent risk in the development of end-user computing (EUC) applications? A. Applications may not be subject to testing and IT general controls B. Increased development and maintenance costsC. Increased application development time D. Decision-making may be impaired due to diminished responsiveness to requests for information ANSWER: A NOTE: End-user developed applications may not be subjected to an independent outside review by systems analysts and frequently are not created in the context of a formal development methodology. These applicati ons may lack appropriate standards, controls, quality assurance procedures, and documentation. A risk of end-user applications is that management may rely on them as much as traditional applications.End-user computing (EUC) systems typically result in reduced application development and maintenance costs, and a reduced development cycle time. EUC systems normally increase flexibility and responsiveness to management's information requests. 41. The MAJOR consideration for an IS auditor reviewing an organization's IT project portfolio is the: A. IT budget. B. existing IT environment. C. business plan. D. investment plan. ANSWER: C NOTE: One of the most important reasons for which projects get funded is how well a project meets an organization's strategic objectives.Portfolio management takes a holistic view of a company's overall IT strategy. IT strategy should be aligned with the business strategy and, hence, reviewing the business plan should be the major consideration. Choices A, B and D are important but secondary to the importance of reviewing the business plan. 42. Which of the following is an attribute of the control self-assessment (CSA) approach? A. Broad stakeholder involvement B. Auditors are the primary control analysts C. Limited employee participation D. Policy driven ANSWER: ANOTE: The control self-assessment (CSA) approach emphasizes management of and accountability for developing and monitoring the controls of an organization's business processes. The attributes of CSA include empowered employees, continuous improvement, extensive employee participation and training, all of which are representations of broad stakeholder involvement. Choices B, C and D are attributes of a traditional audit approach. 43. The BEST method for assessing the effectiveness of a business continuity plan is to review the: A. plans and compare them to appropriate standards. B. results from previous tests.C. emergency procedures and employee training. D. offsite storage an d environmental controls. ANSWER: B NOTE: Previous test results will provide evidence of the effectiveness of the business continuity plan. Comparisons to standards will give some assurance that the plan addresses the critical aspects of a business continuity plan but will not reveal anything about its effectiveness. Reviewing emergency procedures, offsite storage and environmental controls would provide insight into some aspects of the plan but would fall short of providing assurance of the plan's overall effectiveness. 4. An organization has just completed their annual risk assessment. Regarding the business continuity plan, what should an IS auditor recommend as the next step for the organization? A. Review and evaluate the business continuity plan for adequacy B. Perform a full simulation of the business continuity plan C. Train and educate employees regarding the business continuity plan D. Notify critical contacts in the business continuity plan ANSWER: A NOTE: The business co ntinuity plan should be reviewed every time a risk assessment is completed for the organization.Training of the employees and a simulation should be performed after the business continuity plan has been deemed adequate for the organization. There is no reason to notify the business continuity plan contacts at this time. 45. Which of the following insurance types provide for a loss arising from fraudulent acts by employees? A. Business interruption B. Fidelity coverage C. Errors and omissions D. Extra expense ANSWER: B NOTE: Fidelity insurance covers the loss arising from dishonest or fraudulent acts by employees. Business interruption insurance covers the loss of profit due to the disruption in the operations of an organization.Errors and omissions insurance provides legal liability protection in the event that the professional practitioner commits an act that results in financial loss to a client. Extra expense insurance is designed to cover the extra costs of continuing operations following a disaster/disruption within an organization. 46. An IS auditor reviewing the risk assessment process of an organization should FIRST: A. identify the reasonable threats to the information assets. B. analyze the technical and organizational vulnerabilities. C. identify and rank the information assets. D. evaluate the effect of a potential security breach.ANSWER: C NOTE: Identification and ranking of information assets—e. g. , data criticality, locations of assets—will set the tone or scope of how to assess risk in relation to the organizational value of the asset. Second, the threats facing each of the organization's assets should be analyzed according to their value to the organization. Third, weaknesses should be identified so that controls can be evaluated to determine if they mitigate the weaknesses. Fourth, analyze how these weaknesses, in absence of given controls, would impact the organization information assets. 47.An organization is using an enterpr ise resource management (ERP) application. Which of the following would be an effective access control? A. User-level permissions B. Role-based C. Fine-grained D. Discretionary ANSWER: B NOTE: Role-based access controls the system access by defining roles for a group of users. Users are assigned to the various roles and the access is granted based on the user's role. User-level permissions for an ERP system would create a larger administrative overhead. Fine-grained access control is very difficult to implement and maintain in the context of a large nterprise. Discretionary access control may be configured or modified by the users or data owners, and therefore may create inconsistencies in the access control management. 48. The sender of a public key would be authenticated by a: A. certificate authority. B. digital signature. C. digital certificate. D. registration authority. ANSWER: C NOTE: A digital certificate is an electronic document that declares a public key holder is who the holder claims to be. The certificates do handle data authentication as they are used to determine who sent a particular message.A certificate authority issues the digital certificates, and distributes, generates and manages public keys. A digital signature is used to ensure integrity of the message being sent and solve the nonrepudiation issue of message origination. The registration authority would perform most of the administrative tasks of a certificate authority, i. e. , registration of the users of a digital signature plus authenticating the information that is put in the digital certificate. 49. Which of the following is the MOST reliable form of single factor personal identification? A. Smart card B. PasswordC. Photo identification D. Iris scan ANSWER: D NOTE: Since no two irises are alike, identification and verification can be done with confidence. There is no guarantee that a smart card is being used by the correct person since it can be shared, stolen or lost and found. Passwords can be shared and, if written down, carry the risk of discovery. Photo IDs can be forged or falsified. 50. A business application system accesses a corporate database using a single ID and password embedded in a program. Which of the following would provide efficient access control over the organization's data? A.Introduce a secondary authentication method such as card swipe B. Apply role-based permissions within the application system C. Have users input the ID and password for each database transaction D. Set an expiration period for the database password embedded in the program ANSWER: B NOTE: When a single ID and password are embedded in a program, the best compensating control would be a sound access control over the application layer and procedures to ensure access to data is granted based on a user's role. The issue is user permissions, not authentication, therefore adding a stronger authentication does not improve the situation.Having a user input the ID and passwo rd for access would provide a better control because a database log would identify the initiator of the activity. However, this may not be efficient because each transaction would require a separate authentication process. It is a good practice to set an expiration date for a password. However, this might not be practical for an ID automatically logged in from the program. Often, this type of password is set not to expire. 51. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when deciding areas of priority for IT governance implementation?A. Process maturity B. Performance indicators C. Business risk D. Assurance reports ANSWER: C NOTE: Priority should be given to those areas which represent a known risk to the enterprise's operations. The level of process maturity, process performance and audit reports will feed into the decision making process. Those areas that represent real risk to the business should be given priority. 52. An IS auditor has been asked to partic ipate in project initiation meetings for a critical project. The IS auditor's MAIN concern should be that the: A. omplexity and risks associated with the project have been analyzed. B. resources needed throughout the project have been determined. C. project deliverables have been identified. D. a contract for external parties involved in the project has been completed. ANSWER: A NOTE: Understanding complexity and risk, and actively managing these throughout a project are critical to a successful outcome. The other choices, while important during the course of the project, cannot be fully determined at the time the project is initiated, and are often contingent upon the risk and complexity of the project. 3. Which of the following would MOST effectively control the usage of universal storage bus (USB) storage devices? A. Policies that require instant dismissal if such devices are found B. Software for tracking and managing USB storage devices C. Administratively disabling the USB por t D. Searching personnel for USB storage devices at the facility's entrance ANSWER: B NOTE: Software for centralized tracking and monitoring would allow a USB usage policy to be applied to each user based on changing business requirements, and would provide for monitoring and reporting exceptions to management.A policy requiring dismissal may result in increased employee attrition and business requirements would not be properly addressed. Disabling ports would be complex to manage and might not allow for new business needs. Searching of personnel for USB storage devices at the entrance to a facility is not a practical solution since these devices are small and could be easily hidden. 54. When performing a database review, an IS auditor notices that some tables in the database are not normalized. The IS auditor should next: A. recommend that the database be normalized. B. review the conceptual data model.C. review the stored procedures. D. review the justification. ANSWER: D NOTE: If the database is not normalized, the IS auditor should review the justification since, in some situations, denormalization is recommended for performance reasons. The IS auditor should not recommend normalizing the database until further investigation takes place. Reviewing the conceptual data model or the stored procedures will not provide information about normalization. 55. Which of the following would be the GREATEST cause for concern when data are sent over the Internet using HTTPS protocol? A.Presence of spyware in one of the ends B. The use of a traffic sniffing tool C. The implementation of an RSA-compliant solution D. A symmetric cryptography is used for transmitting data ANSWER: A NOTE: Encryption using secure sockets layer/transport layer security (SSL/TLS) tunnels makes it difficult to intercept data in transit, but when spyware is running on an end user's computer, data are collected before encryption takes place. The other choices are related to encrypting the traffic, but the presence of spyware in one of the ends captures the data before encryption takes place. 56.At the completion of a system development project, a postproject review should include which of the following? A. Assessing risks that may lead to downtime after the production release B. Identifying lessons learned that may be applicable to future projects C. Verifying the controls in the delivered system are working D. Ensuring that test data are deleted ANSWER: B NOTE: A project team has something to learn from each and every project. As risk assessment is a key issue for project management, it is important for the organization to accumulate lessons learned and integrate them into future projects.An assessment of potential downtime should be made with the operations group and other specialists before implementing a system. Verifying that controls are working should be covered during the acceptance test phase and possibly, again, in the postimplementation review. Test data should be retained for future regression testing. 57. While reviewing the IT infrastructure, an IS auditor notices that storage resources are continuously being added. The IS auditor should: A. recommend the use of disk mirroring. B. review the adequacy of offsite storage. C. eview the capacity management process. D. recommend the use of a compression algorithm. ANSWER: C NOTE: Capacity management is the planning and monitoring of computer resources to ensure that available IT resources are used efficiently and effectively. Business criticality must be considered before recommending a disk mirroring solution and offsite storage is unrelated to the problem. Though data compression may save disk space, it could affect system performance. 58. Which of the following would be MOST important for an IS auditor to verify when conducting a business continuity audit? A.Data backups are performed on a timely basis B. A recovery site is contracted for and available as needed C. Human safety procedures a re in place D. Insurance coverage is adequate and premiums are current ANSWER: C NOTE: The most important element in any business continuity process is the protection of human life. This takes precedence over all other aspects of the plan. 59. While reviewing sensitive electronic work papers, the IS auditor noticed that they were not encrypted. This could compromise the: A. audit trail of the versioning of the work papers. B. approval of the audit phases.C. access rights to the work papers. D. confidentiality of the work papers. ANSWER: D NOTE: Encryption provides confidentiality for the electronic work papers. Audit trails, audit phase approvals and access to the work papers do not, of themselves, affect the confidentiality but are part of the reason for requiring encryption. 60. An IS auditor reviewing an accounts payable system discovers that audit logs are not being reviewed. When this issue is raised with management the response is that additional controls are not necessary bec ause effective system access controls are in place.The BEST response the auditor can make is to: A. review the integrity of system access controls. B. accept management's statement that effective access controls are in place. C. stress the importance of having a system control framework in place. D. review the background checks of the accounts payable staff. ANSWER: C NOTE: Experience has demonstrated that reliance purely on preventative controls is dangerous. Preventative controls may not prove to be as strong as anticipated or their effectiveness can deteriorate over time.Evaluating the cost of controls versus the quantum of risk is a valid management concern. However, in a high-risk system a comprehensive control framework is needed. Intelligent design should permit additional detective and corrective controls to be established that don't have high ongoing costs, e. g. , automated interrogation of logs to highlight suspicious individual transactions or data patterns. Effective ac cess controls are, in themselves, a positive but, for reasons outlined above, may not sufficiently compensate for other control weaknesses. In this situation the IS auditor needs to be proactive.The IS auditor has a fundamental obligation to point out control weaknesses that give rise to unacceptable risks to the organization and work with management to have these corrected. Reviewing background checks on accounts payable staff does not provide evidence that fraud will not occur. 61. A firewall is being deployed at a new location. Which of the following is the MOST important factor in ensuring a successful deployment? A. Reviewing logs frequently B. Testing and validating the rules C. Training a local administrator at the new location D. Sharing firewall administrative dutiesANSWER: B NOTE: A mistake in the rule set can render a firewall insecure. Therefore, testing and validating the rules is the most important factor in ensuring a successful deployment. A regular review of log fil es would not start until the deployment has been completed. Training a local administrator may not be necessary if the firewalls are managed from a central location. Having multiple administrators is a good idea, but not the most important. 62. When evaluating the controls of an EDI application, an IS auditor should PRIMARILY be concerned with the risk of: A. xcessive transaction turnaround time. B. application interface failure. C. improper transaction authorization. D. nonvalidated batch totals. ANSWER: C NOTE: Foremost among the risks associated with electronic data interchange (EDI) is improper transaction authorization. Since the interaction with the parties is electronic, there is no inherent authentication. The other choices, although risks, are not as significant. 63. The PRIMARY objective of implementing corporate governance by an organization's management is to: A. provide strategic direction. B. control business operations.C. align IT with business. D. implement best prac tices. ANSWER: A NOTE: Corporate governance is a set of management practices to provide strategic direction, thereby ensuring that goals are achievable, risks are properly addressed and organizational resources are properly utilized. Hence, the primary objective of corporate governance is to provide strategic direction. Based on the strategic direction, business operations are directed and controlled. 64. To determine if unauthorized changes have been made to production code the BEST audit procedure is to: A. xamine the change control system records and trace them forward to object code files. B. review access control permissions operating within the production program libraries. C. examine object code to find instances of changes and trace them back to change control records. D. review change approved designations established within the change control system. ANSWER: C NOTE: The procedure of examining object code files to establish instances of code changes and tracing these back t o change control system records is a substantive test that directly addresses the risk of unauthorized code changes.The other choices are valid procedures to apply in a change control audit but they do not directly address the risk of unauthorized code changes. 65. When reviewing an active project, an IS auditor observed that, because of a reduction in anticipated benefits and increased costs, the business case was no longer valid. The IS auditor should recommend that the: A. project be discontinued. B. business case be updated and possible corrective actions be identified. C. project be returned to the project sponsor for reapproval. D. project be ompleted and the business case be updated later. ANSWER: B NOTE: An IS auditor should not recommend discontinuing or completing the project before reviewing an updated business case. The IS auditor should recommend that the business case be kept current throughout the project since it is a key input to decisions made throughout the life o f any project. 66. Which of the following audit techniques would BEST aid an auditor in determining whether there have been unauthorized program changes since the last authorized program update? A. Test data run B. Code review C.Automated code comparison D. Review of code migration procedures ANSWER: C NOTE: An automated code comparison is the process of comparing two versions of the same program to determine whether the two correspond. It is an efficient technique because it is an automated procedure. Test data runs permit the auditor to verify the processing of preselected transactions, but provide no evidence about unexercised portions of a program. Code review is the process of reading program source code listings to determine whether the code contains potential errors or inefficient statements.A code review can be used as a means of code comparison but it is inefficient. The review of code migration procedures would not detect program changes. 67. Doing which of the following d uring peak production hours could result in unexpected downtime? A. Performing data migration or tape backup B. Performing preventive maintenance on electrical systems C. Promoting applications from development to the staging environment D. Replacing a failed power supply in the core router of the data center ANSWER: B NOTE: Choices A and C are processing events which may impact performance, but ould not cause downtime. Enterprise-class routers have redundant hot-swappable power supplies, so replacing a failed power supply should not be an issue. Preventive maintenance activities should be scheduled for non-peak times of the day, and preferably during a maintenance window time period. A mishap or incident caused by a maintenance worker could result in unplanned downtime. 68. Which of the following is the MOST robust method for disposing of magnetic media that contains confidential information? A. Degaussing B. Defragmenting C. Erasing D. Destroying ANSWER: DNOTE: Destroying magnetic media is the only way to assure that confidential information cannot be recovered. Degaussing or demagnetizing is not sufficient to fully erase information from magnetic media. The purpose of defragmentation is to eliminate fragmentation in file systems and does not remove information. Erasing or deleting magnetic media does not remove the information; this method simply changes a file's indexing information. 69. The MAIN criterion for determining the severity level of a service disruption incident is: A. cost of recovery. B. negative public opinion. C. geographic location. D. downtime.ANSWER: D NOTE: The longer the period of time a client cannot be serviced, the greater the severity of the incident. The cost of recovery could be minimal yet the service downtime could have a major impact. Negative public opinion is a symptom of an incident. Geographic location does not determine the severity of the incident. 70. During the design of a business continuity plan, the business impact a nalysis (BIA) identifies critical processes and supporting applications. This will PRIMARILY influence the: A. responsibility for maintaining the business continuity plan. B. criteria for selecting a recovery site provider.C. recovery strategy. D. responsibilities of key personnel. ANSWER: C NOTE: The most appropriate strategy is selected based on the relative risk level and criticality identified in the business impact analysis (BIA. ), The other choices are made after the selection or design of the appropriate recovery strategy. 71. What is the lowest level of the IT governance maturity model where an IT balanced scorecard exists? A. Repeatable but Intuitive B. Defined C. Managed and Measurable D. Optimized ANSWER: B NOTE: Defined (level 3) is the lowest level at which an IT balanced scorecard is defined. 2. During the system testing phase of an application development project the IS auditor should review the: A. conceptual design specifications. B. vendor contract. C. error repor ts. D. program change requests. ANSWER: C NOTE: Testing is crucial in determining that user requirements have been validated. The IS auditor should be involved in this phase and review error reports for their precision in recognizing erroneous data and review the procedures for resolving errors. A conceptual design specification is a document prepared during the requirements definition phase. A vendor ontract is prepared during a software acquisition process. Program change requests would normally be reviewed as a part of the postimplementation phase. 73. When reviewing procedures for emergency changes to programs, the IS auditor should verify that the procedures: A. allow changes, which will be completed using after-the-fact follow-up. B. allow undocumented changes directly to the production library. C. do not allow any emergency changes. D. allow programmers permanent access to production programs. ANSWER: A NOTE: There may be situations where emergency fixes are required to resol ve system problems.This involves the use of special logon IDs that grant programmers temporary access to production programs during emergency situations. Emergency changes should be completed using after-the-fact follow-up procedures, which ensure that normal procedures are retroactively applied; otherwise, production may be impacted. Changes made in this fashion should be held in an emergency library from where they can be moved to the production library, following the normal change management process. Programmers should not directly alter the production library nor should they be allowed permanent access to production programs. 4. Though management has stated otherwise, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that the organization is using software that is not licensed. In this situation, the IS auditor should: A. include the statement of management in the audit report. B. identify whether such software is, indeed, being used by the organization. C. reconfirm with management the usag e of the software. D. discuss the issue with senior management since reporting this could have a negative impact on the organization. ANSWER: B NOTE: When there is an indication that an organization might be using nlicensed software, the IS auditor should obtain sufficient evidence before including it in the report. With respect to this matter, representations obtained from management cannot be independently verified. If the organization is using software that is not licensed, the auditor, to maintain objectivity and independence, must include this in the report. 75. Which of the following would be BEST prevented by a raised floor in the computer machine room? A. Damage of wires around computers and servers B. A power failure from static electricity C. Shocks from earthquakes D. Water flood damage ANSWER: ANOTE: The primary reason for having a raised floor is to enable power cables and data cables to be installed underneath the floor. This eliminates the safety and damage risks pose d when cables are placed in a spaghetti-like fashion on an open floor. Static electricity should be avoided in the machine room; therefore, measures such as specially manufactured carpet or shoes would be more appropriate for static prevention than a raised floor. Raised floors do not address shocks from earthquakes. To address earthquakes, anti-seismic architecture would be required to establish a quake-resistant structural framework.Computer equipment needs to be protected against water. However, a raised floor would not prevent damage to the machines in the event of overhead water pipe leakage. 76. The network of an organization has been the victim of several intruders' attacks. Which of the following measures would allow for the early detection of such incidents? A. Antivirus software B. Hardening the servers C. Screening routers D. Honeypots ANSWER: D NOTE: Honeypots can collect data on precursors of attacks. Since they serve no business function, honeypots are hosts that have no authorized users other than the honeypot administrators.All activity directed at them is considered suspicious. Attackers will scan and attack honeypots, giving administrators data on new trends and attack tools, particularly malicious code. However, honeypots are a supplement to, not a replacement for, properly securing networks, systems and applications. If honeypots are to be used by an organization, qualified incident handlers and intrusion detection analysts should manage them. The other choices do not provide indications of potential attacks. 77. The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily to: A. prevent piggybacking.B. prevent toxic gases from entering the data center. C. starve a fire of oxygen. D. prevent an excessively rapid entry to, or exit from, the facility. ANSWER: A NOTE: The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily intended to prevent piggybacking. Choices B and C could be accomplish ed with a single self-closing door. Choice D is invalid, as a rapid exit may be necessary in some circumstances, e. g. , a fire. 78. The MOST important reason for an IS auditor to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence is to: A. comply with regulatory requirements. B. rovide a basis for drawing reasonable conclusions. C. ensure complete audit coverage. D. perform the audit according to the defined scope. ANSWER: B NOTE: The scope of an IS audit is defined by its objectives. This involves identifying control weaknesses relevant to the scope of the audit. Obtaining sufficient and appropriate evidence assists the auditor in not only identifying control weaknesses but also documenting and validating them. Complying with regulatory requirements, ensuring coverage and the execution of audit are all relevant to an audit but are not the reason why sufficient and relevant evidence is required. 9. During the audit of a database server, which of the following would be considered the GREATEST exposure? A. The password does not expire on the administrator account B. Default global security settings for the database remain unchanged C. Old data have not been purged D. Database activity is not fully logged ANSWER: B NOTE: Default security settings for the database could allow issues like blank user passwords or passwords that were the same as the username. Logging all database activity is not practical. Failure to purge old data may present a performance issue but is not an immediate security concern.Choice A is an exposure but not as serious as B. 80. An IS auditor finds that a DBA has read and write access to production data. The IS auditor should: A. accept the DBA access as a common practice. B. assess the controls relevant to the DBA function. C. recommend the immediate revocation of the DBA access to production data. D. review user access authorizations approved by the DBA. ANSWER: B NOTE: It is good practice when finding a potential exposure to look for the best controls. Though granting the database administrator (DBA) access to production data might be a common practice, the IS auditor should evaluate the relevant controls.The DBA should have access based on a need-to-know and need-to-do basis; therefore, revocation may remove the access required. The DBA, typically, may need to have access to some production data. Granting user authorizations is the responsibility of the data owner and not the DBA. 81. What should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor when employees use portable media (MP3 players, flash drives)? A. The copying of sensitive data on them B. The copying of songs and videos on them C. The cost of these devices multipl